I know I'm not the one you were directing this toward, but I'd like to see those studies.
Sure. There's
What Do Wage Differentials Tell Us about Labor Market Discrimination? by June and David O'Neill, which finds controlling for those factors basically eliminates it. Money quote: "There is no gender gap in wages among men and women with similar family roles."
The American Association of University Women conducted a similar study in 2012, though I can't find it online. But I found
two articles from that time period referencing it, which each said they put the difference around 5-6%.
Perhaps most significantly, the U.S. Department of Labor put out a
study in 2009 covering dozens of peer-reviewed papers on the topic, and similarly puts it between 5-7%.
I'll have to get back to you on the reverse gap thing. There's a 2010 study that, in large cities,
young, single women earn more than young, single men, but that's obviously a little narrow (though still kinda hard to reconcile with the idea of society-wide sex discrimination). That wasn't the one I was thinking of, though, so let me see what I can find.
For the record, I don't think there's a
reverse gap, and I think there could easily be
some gap. But if there is, I think it's very small, to the point where it would be hard to say with much confidence that it exists at all, and harder still to chalk it up to sexism. 20% gaps can only be explained by big, glaring problems, but a 5% gap could be explained by a lot of relatively innocuous things.
(By the way, the hot research issue when I left was about wage negotiation, which I haven't read all of but I recall a few studies that argued both [1] part of the wage gap is explained by women not negotiating for higher wages as effectively as men but that [2] women were just as effective as men at actually negotiating for wage increases, and IIRC even better than men, when it was on behalf of another party. Generally implying that there is some sort of ingrained stigma against women arguing for their own wage increases [either in their own minds or the minds of others].
Yeah, I've heard of that: that simply asking, or not, is a huge factor. Maybe it's as simple as convincing women it's okay to ask for raises.
It's also interesting because when I was looking around for the studies you mentioned I ran into
this study on the different effects of testosterone on the wage gap, according to this study it seemed like men who had higher prenatal testosterone exposure [which is linked to being more masculine] had higher wage returns than those without, but that women who had higher testosterone exposure did not experience such a benefit; seemingly implying that it's not the market even simply rewarding masculinity, but just when it's males showing that masculinity [implying bias, imo]. But that's just a thought, the study did not argue that and I didn't come across one that did during my brief check.)
Does it necessarily imply that? I think other possibilities fit the data. For example, maybe testosterone helps at high levels, but not low ones. Even women with very high testosterone levels will produce much, much less than even a low-T man. The baselines are totally different, and I don't know why we'd assume the effect is linear.
I'd also feel pretty safe assuming that men are more likely to work in fields where increased testosterone was beneficial in the first place. It probably helps construction workers, but I doubt it does much for clerical work. Probably just the opposite, in fact, since higher testosterone correlates with lower attention spans, IIRC.
Basically, if someone said that (X) wage gap doesn't exist because (X Group) should simply get better paying jobs, I can't help but feel like part of the point was missed?
I guess that depends on what you think "the point" is. It seems to me these arguments are almost invariably a response to one of those totally raw numbers, like "women make 77% as much as men," in which case I'd say it addresses the point pretty directly. Particularly when you consider the rhetoric that usually accompanies that number, like the phrase "equal pay for equal work," which the President used a number of times. When someone uses that number and that phrase in conjunction, they're basically lying.
It
could miss the point if it were the response to a thoughtful, nuanced argument about broad societal priorities, I guess. But that's not what people are outraged over, and not what it's generally a response to. People are outraged over the idea that women are getting paid less for doing the same thing. The idea that prioritizing something over your work will affect your wages, on the other hand, is decidedly less outrageous.
Or if it disappears then we've really made progress, and we all can move on to a different argument.
I'd like to think so, but I'm skeptical it would make a difference. If people (leaders in particular) don't care about even basic methodological questions now, I dunno why they'd stop using this stuff to gin up outrage with a couple more data points.